Salvation
In John 8:40, Jesus refers to himself as 'a man,' which implies he is only human and not divine.
Quick answer
The term 'anthropos' does not negate the divinity of Christ, as the Gospel of John affirms that Jesus is the eternal Word of God who became flesh. Furthermore, Jesus' statements about his preexistence and divine identity demonstrate that he is both fully God and fully man.
Full argument
The Greek term 'anthropos' used by Jesus does not deny his divinity, as it is consistent with the broader context of John's Gospel, which clearly states that Jesus is the Word who was with God and is God. In John 1:1-4, it is affirmed that all things were created through him, and he is the source of life. Additionally, Jesus acknowledges his eternal preexistence in John 8:23-24, where he states, 'I am from above,' and again in John 8:58, declaring, 'before Abraham came into existence, I AM.' These declarations align him with the divine name of Yahweh, indicating his divine nature. Therefore, the use of 'anthropos' signifies that Jesus is fully God and fully man, uniting two distinct natures in one person, as affirmed in Christian doctrine.
Key verses
John 1:1bible
In the beginning was the Word...
John 8:23bible
I am from above...
John 8:58bible
Before Abraham came into existence, I AM!
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